So I have been able to view my sons MRE report from yesterday- but I don't understand all of it. I have not heard from the doctor yet of course...
Everything appears normal except for two things which were noted- I will quote directly from the report:
"in the left upper quadrant there is a segment of collapsed bowel with diffusion restriction- likely jejunem. Increased signal in the post contrast images in the area is favored to be secondary to decompressed loops. This could be related to the patients' celiac disease."
"There is a small amount of free fluid in the pelvis, unexpected in a male. May be related to known celiac disease."
It goes on to state that there is no thickening and everything else looks normal sized.
His endoscopy done earlier this month showed no sign of active celiac disease, though his Ttg has been slightly elevated. Crohns can also elevate the Ttg.
From what I am googling- the fluid is something to be concerned about. Am I correct in thinking that attributing it to celiac, when celiac has already been determined to be under control, is not likely correct?
As for the diffusion signal...no clue what that means, even after googling.
Can anybody help decipher this please?
Everything appears normal except for two things which were noted- I will quote directly from the report:
"in the left upper quadrant there is a segment of collapsed bowel with diffusion restriction- likely jejunem. Increased signal in the post contrast images in the area is favored to be secondary to decompressed loops. This could be related to the patients' celiac disease."
"There is a small amount of free fluid in the pelvis, unexpected in a male. May be related to known celiac disease."
It goes on to state that there is no thickening and everything else looks normal sized.
His endoscopy done earlier this month showed no sign of active celiac disease, though his Ttg has been slightly elevated. Crohns can also elevate the Ttg.
From what I am googling- the fluid is something to be concerned about. Am I correct in thinking that attributing it to celiac, when celiac has already been determined to be under control, is not likely correct?
As for the diffusion signal...no clue what that means, even after googling.
Can anybody help decipher this please?